Please educate me and dispell my foolish notions
I've been shooting most of my life, but I'm new to the Garand world. I've been researching an M1 picked up from CMP a few years ago and I'm looking for some education from those more knowledgeable than me (which is just about anyone on this subject).
It is an SA that is very early 1955 production. The serial # is only about 4k units into a new block of numbers assigned to SA for 1955 and the barrel is also dated 1/55. It has a couple minor stock dings from handling but is overall in excellent condition and shoots fantastic. All the finishes match on metal and wood. The only markings on the stock are the P proof mark and the .5" DOT acceptance stamp. No arsenal or import marks that I can find.
Now the interesting part and the question. In documenting and researching the various drawing numbers on the pieces I have found that every part but one is SA and every one of them is period correct for 1955. All the ones that have heat treat lot numbers are also correct for 1955 production.
This is were my fantasy of an all original unmolested Garand comes into play. I have a vision of a rifle that was very late production, had a short domestic service life and was quickly replaced by an M14 and put into storage without requiring any rebuild. A very boring history but unusual none the less.
There is only one fly in the fantasy ointment, the bolt. The bolt is an HRA/Underwood unit. Again very much period correct 1955, but not SA. I have read that during the war it was not uncommon for parts overruns from one manufacturer to be used by another manufacturer. Many rifles were mixmasters from the day they were born and long before their 1st arsenal rebuilds. So my question is, was this common in the late production rifles and could it in fact be the original bolt? I think I know the answer to this one but I'll ask anyway, is there any way to confirm this?
Please educate me
